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山东省临沂市2021年中考英语试题(解析版).doc

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1、山东省临沂市2021年中考英语试题(解析版)注意事项:1. 本试卷分第卷(选择题)和第卷(非选择题)两部分,共10页。满分100分,考试时间100分钟。答卷前,考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在试卷和答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。2. 答题注意事项见答题卡,答在本试卷上不得分。第I卷(选择题 共55分)一、听力测试(共15小题,计15分)注意:听力测试分四部分,共20小题。做题时,请先将答案画在试卷上,录音内容结束后,将所选答案转涂到答题卡上。 (一)听句子,选择与句子内容相对应的图片。每个句子读两遍。 A. B. C. D. E. F.

2、 1. _ 2. _ 3. _ 4. _ 5. _ . (二)听对话和问题,根据所听内容,选择最佳答案。对话和问题都读两遍。6. A. Science. B. History. C. Art.7. A. On August 3rd. B. On August 2nd. C. In July.8. A. 100 dollars. B. 80 dollars. C. 60 dollars.9. A. By car. B. By bike. C. On foot.10. A. Call up Cindy to say sorry. B. Go to Cindys house with some fl

3、owers.C. Write Cindy a letter to say sorry.(三)听短文,根据短文内容,判断下列句子正误,正确的用“A”表示,不正确的用“B”表示。短文读两遍。听短文前,你们有20秒钟的时间阅读下列句子。11. Eric is a beautiful white pet cat.12. Eric was chosen as the Most Caring Cat this year.13. Jack Brown is a British officer now.14. Jack used to get angry easily and argue with anyon

4、e. 15. Eric helped Jack by jumping up and down and getting his attention.请考生们翻到第7页,先找到第五大题。你们将有5秒钟的准备时间。二、单项填空(共8小题,计8分)选择最佳答案。1. Well have a class meeting _ 3:30 this afternoon.A. inB. onC. at【答案】C【解析】【详解】句意:今天下午三点半我们要开班会。考查时间介词用法。in后接某年某月;on后接具体一天;at后接具体时刻。“3:30”是具体的时刻,故选C。2. Everyone knows now th

5、at plastic pollution is _ huge problem for the environment.A. aB. anC. /【答案】A【解析】【详解】句意:现在每个人都知道塑料污染是一个巨大的环境问题。考查冠词用法。根据“ plastic pollution is . huge problem”可知此处泛指一个巨大的问题,huge以辅音音素开头,其前用不定冠词a。故选A。3. Remember to use sunglasses to stop the sun from _ directly in your eyes.A. shineB. shiningC. to shin

6、e【答案】B【解析】【详解】句意:记得戴太阳镜,以免阳光直射眼睛。考查非谓语动词。短语stop sb/sth from doing阻止做某事.from是介词,后接动名词作宾语,故选B。4. The minute the alarm clock _, I got up and took a quick shower.A. went byB. went outC. went off【答案】C【解析】【详解】句意:闹钟一响,我就起床冲了个澡。考查动词短语。went by时间逝去;went out熄灭;went off突然发出响声;根据“the alarm clock”可知,此处指的是“闹钟突然发出响

7、声”,故选C。5. _ English has a history of over 2,500 years, the first English dictionary didnt appear until the 17th century.A. BecauseB. AlthoughC. Unless【答案】B【解析】【详解】句意:虽然英语有2500多年的历史,但第一本英语词典直到17世纪才出现。考查连词辨析。because因为;although尽管;unless除非。“English has a history of over 2,500 years”与“the first English d

8、ictionary didnt appear until the 17th century”是让步关系,用although引导让步状语从句,故选B。6. You and I are lucky as weve _ had to worry about finding clean water.A. oftenB. usuallyC. never【答案】C【解析】【详解】句意:你和我都很幸运,因为我们从来不用担心找不到干净水。考查副词。often经常;usually通常;never从不;根据“had to worry about finding clean water”可知,从不担心找不到干净的水

9、,应用never表示,故选C。7. During the 16th century, Europe saw rich developments in science, medicine and the arts. People had to “invent” words _ new ideas.A. to expressB. expressesC. express【答案】A【解析】【详解】句意:在16世纪,欧洲在科学、医学和艺术方面有了丰富的发展。人们不得不“发明”词语来表达新思想。考查非谓语。分析句子结构可知,空处表达的是“为了表达新的想法”,应用不定式作目的状语,故选A。8. Excuse

10、 me, could you tell me _? Sure. You can take the No. 2 bus from here and get off in front of the cinema.A. when Sun Cinema closes todayB. how I can get to Sun CinemaC. how can I get to Sun Cinema【答案】B【解析】【详解】句意:打扰一下,你可以告诉我我如何到达太阳电影院吗?当然。你可以从这里乘2路公共汽车,在电影院前面下车。考查宾语从句。宾语从句遵循陈述语序,排除C选项。根据答语“You can tak

11、e the No. 2 bus from here and get off in front of the cinema”可知,是询问如何到电影院,故选B。三、完形填空(共8小题,计8分)根据短文内容,从方框中选出恰当的单词或短语填空,使语意通顺完整。A. that have died B. that has grown up C. make their city greener D. ask for help E. celebratesIn San Francisco, there is a special group of volunteers. They call themselves

12、Friends of the Urban (城市的) Forest (FUF). These volunteers want to _9_. Every year, the FUF plants nearly 1,000 trees.The FUF welcomes new volunteers all year round and in all parts of its work. On Weekend Planting Days, FUF volunteers work with common citizens (市民) to plant trees. The planting usual

13、ly runs from 9 a.m. to 1 p.m. After the work is done, everyone _10_ over a community lunch.On Thursday Planting Days, the FUF plants “replacement (替换) trees”. As their name suggests, these trees replace trees _11_. Planting Leaders are very experienced volunteers. They are able to help other volunte

14、ers at planting events. Planting Leaders usually wear a special FUF T-shirt. Some new volunteers know little about “replacement trees”. They can easily find Planting Leaders and _12_.【答案】9. C 10. E 11. A 12. D【解析】【分析】本文介绍了旧金山的一个特殊支援小组的主要工作内容。【9题详解】句意:这些志愿者想让他们的城市更环保。根据“the FUF plants nearly 1,000 tr

15、ees”可知,种树可以让城市更环保,C选项“make their city greener 让他们的城市更加绿色”符合,故选C。【10题详解】句意:工作完成后,每个人都在社区午餐上庆祝。根据“After the work is done”及备选词,可知,工作完成后会庆祝,E选项“celebrates庆祝”符合,故选E。【11题详解】句意:顾名思义,这些树取代了已经死去的树。根据“these trees replace trees”可知,新的树会替代某些树,备选词A选项“that have died已经死的”符合,故选A。【12题详解】句意:他们可以很容易地找到种植领袖并寻求帮助。根据“Some

16、 new volunteers know little about “replacement trees”可知,寻找对方是要寻求帮助,D选项“ask for help寻求帮助”符合,故选D。根据短文内容,从方框中选出恰当的单词或短语填空,使语意通顺完整。A. so that B. set up C. in order to D. whenever E. make sureIn 1995, the FUF _13_ a program called Tree Care. The purpose is to improve the health of street trees in San Fra

17、ncisco. The FUFs tree experts make “house calls” to every newly-planted street tree once a month. They _14_ the trees are growing well. Through Tree Care, people learn why trees are important and how to take care of them.There are also Emergency Tree Care Volunteers at the FUF. These volunteers save

18、 young trees that have fallen or are leaning (倾斜). They set out to work _15_ the FUF informs (通知) them of a tree in need.The FUF sends newsletters to people _16_ plant a love for trees in every citizen. It also offers tree tours and planting training. The FUFs Youth Program trains teenagers like you

19、 to plant and care for trees.【答案】13. B 14. E 15. D 16. C【解析】【分析】文章介绍了FUF成立了一个名为树木护理的项目,以及这个项目的目的以及工作情况。【13题详解】句意:1995年,FUF成立了一个名为树木护理的项目。根据“a program called Tree Care”及备选词汇可知,此处指的是“成立项目”,故选B。【14题详解】句意:他们确保树木生长良好。根据“The FUFs tree experts make “house calls” to every newly-planted street tree once a mo

20、nth.”FUF的树木专家每个月对每棵新种植的街道树进行一次“上门拜访”。可知,这样做的目的是确保树木健康成长,故选E。【15题详解】句意:无论什么时候,只要FUF通知他们有一棵树需要帮助,他们就会工作。根据句意及备选词汇可知,此处指的是“无论何时”,故选D。【16题详解】句意:FUF向人们发送时事通讯,以便让每一个公民种植一棵爱心树。分析句子可知,“The FUF sends newsletters to people”的目的是“plant a love for trees in every citizen”,此处应用in order to“为了”,故选C。四、阅读理解(共12小题,计24分

21、) AHave you ever imagined what life will be like in 2060? An international group of forty scientists have made some surprising predictions. They said that in the next forty years, our lives would change beyond our wildest dreams.Firstly, humans can grow body parts themselves. Dr. Ellen Heber-Katz is

22、 one of the forty scientists. He says, “People will think it common that sick organs (器官) can be repaired. Its just like the way we fix a car.” Damaged parts will be taken away. Scientists could use human cells (细胞) to grow new organs. New technologies like this will also help people to live longer.

23、 Within forty years, most people will be able to live up to one hundred years.Secondly, the scientists have predicted that a machine will be invented to “read” the minds of animals. In 2060, we will be able to “talk” to animals. Scientists say that humans may first “talk” with mammals (哺乳动物) and the

24、n other vertebrates (脊椎动物) such as fish.Our houses might also change beyond our imagination. Dr. Susan Greenfield predicts that when you enter the living room, sensors (传感器) will know you. They will turn on the lights. If you talk to the lights, they will change to the color of your choice.But what

25、would be the biggest breakthrough (突破) over the next forty years? A number of scientists believe it would be the discovery of aliens. NASA scientist Chris Mckay says, “We may find aliens in space and talk with them.” He believes marks of alien life may even be found here on Earth. Does life in 2060

26、sound cool to you? Lets wait and see what will really happen then!根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。17. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?A. In 2060, humans may be able to communicate with dogs and aliens.B. Most people will be able to live up to two hundred years in forty years.C. The sensors will tur

27、n off the lights after you leave the living room in 2060.18. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage? (P1=Paragraph 1)A. B. C. 19. The writer wrote the passage in a _ tone (语气).A. scaryB. surprisingC. disappointing20. What is the best title for the passage?A. Life in 2060B. Th

28、e Biggest BreakthroughC. How to Live Longer【答案】17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A【解析】【分析】文章是对2060年的生活进行畅想。【17题详解】细节理解题。根据“In 2060, we will be able to “talk” to animals.”以及“We may find aliens in space and talk with them.”可知,到2060年,人类或许能够与狗狗和外星人交流。故选A。【18题详解】篇章结构题。根据文章的理解可知,第一段总体指出2060年我们的生活将改变,超出我们最疯狂的梦想;第二、三、四

29、、五段分别从不同的方面介绍2060年的生活中的改变;第六段再次总结让我们期待2060年的生活会是什么样子,C选项的结构划分符合,故选C。【19题详解】推理判断题。根据“They said that in the next forty years, our lives would change beyond our wildest dreams.”以及“Does life in 2060 sound cool to you? Lets wait and see what will really happen then!”可知,2060年的生活的改变将超出我们最疯狂的梦想,是令人惊讶的,所以作者是

30、以令人惊叹的语气写出这篇文章,故选B。【20题详解】最佳标题题。根据整个文章的理解及“Does life in 2060 sound cool to you? Lets wait and see what will really happen then!”可知,文章主要是畅想2060年的生活,故选A。BWhich country grows the most tea? The answer is India. It grows three times as much as China. Which country drinks the most tea? Its neither China n

31、or Japan. Its Great Britain.In the wild, tea plants may be 9 meters tall. But a plant grown for market is pruned. Pruning keeps the plant only 0.9 or 1.2 meters tall. This is an easy height for tea picking. Only the two top leaves and bud (芽) of each new shoot are picked. So to make money, tea plant

32、ations (种植园) must be huge.In general, there are two kinds of tea: black tea and green tea. Black tea is fermented (发酵). In the process, the tea loses nearly all of its healthy parts. Green tea is steamed (蒸) right after the leaves are picked. Green tea keeps its healthy parts. For example, it may pr

33、event heart illness.How did we get tea bags? The answer: by accident. Tea businessmen used to send samples (样品) in tin (锡) boxes. This was very expensive. One businessman thought of a cheaper way. He sent samples in small silk bags. Customers would open the bag. They would make tea as usual. One cus

34、tomer put the bag into a pot. Then he just poured hot water over it. And the tea bag was born.Shen Nong was the first to drink tea. He was a Chinese emperor. This was about 2737 B.C. Shen drank several cups of hot water daily. One day something happened. Leaves from a wild tea tree fell into the hot

35、 water pot. The next cup was poured. The water was now colored. Shen tasted it. He liked it. He drank it all. Shen was proud of his new drink. He served it to his guests. Word spread. People thought this way: tea is good enough for the Emperor, so it must be good enough for the people. Tea became th

36、e drink of China. 根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。21. The writer starts the passage by _.A. telling an interesting storyB. comparing some informationC. giving several useful suggestions22. In Paragraph Two the underlined word “pruned” means “_” in Chinese.A. 删除B. 采摘C. 修剪23. After reading the passage, it seems clear t

37、hat _.A. tea and tea bags were invented by accidentB. black tea is healthier than green teaC. tea is better for you than any other drink24. The passage mainly tells us _.A. the popularity of tea bagsB. the ways of making green tea and black teaC. the discovery and development of tea【答案】21. B 22. C 2

38、3. A 24. C【解析】【分析】文章介绍了有关茶的发展历史以及世界上产茶最多的国家以及喝茶最多的国家等。【21题详解】细节理解题。根据“Which country grows the most tea? The answer is India. It grows three times as much as China. Which country drinks the most tea? Its neither China nor Japan. Its Great Britain.”可知,文章通过自问自答的比较的方式开始文章的描述,故选B。【22题详解】词义猜测题。根据“In the w

39、ild, tea plants may be 9 meters tall.”以及“Pruning keeps the plant only 0.9 or 1.2 meters tall.”可知,原本能够长9米高的茶树,让它保持在0.9到1.2米之间是需要修剪才可以的,所以单词“pruned”指的是“修剪”,故选C。【23题详解】推理判断题。根据“One customer put the bag into a pot. Then he just poured hot water over it. And the tea bag was born.”以及“Leaves from a wild te

40、a tree fell into the hot water pot. The next cup was poured. The water was now colored. Shen tasted it. He liked it. He drank it all. Shen was proud of his new drink.”可知,茶和茶包都是偶然间发明的,故选A。【24题详解】主旨大意题。根据整个文章的理解可知,文章主要是介绍茶的发现以及发展历史,故选C。COn Saturday morning, Tom Sawyer had to paint his aunts fence (栅栏)

41、. Tom looked at the thirty meters of wide fence and felt bad. He thought of the fun he had planned for the day. Soon the free boys would go out to play, and they would laugh at him for having to work. He felt even worse. _25_Soon Ben Rogers appeared, eating an apple. Tom ignored (不理) him and continu

42、ed painting. He stopped and looked at his work like an artist. “Hello, Tom. Im going swimming. Dont you wish you could? But of course, you have to work.”Tom looked at Ben, then said, “What do you call work?”“Isnt this work?”Tom continued painting, and answered, “Well, maybe it is, and maybe it isnt.

43、 All I know is, I like it.” “Do you really like it?”“_26_”That made it sound different. Ben stopped eating his apple. Tom moved his brush carefully backwards and forwards and stepped back to look. Ben watched every move, getting more interested. Presently, he said, “Hey, Tom, let me paint a little.”

44、Tom thought, and then said, “No, I dont think so, Ben. Aunt Polly wants this fence painted carefully because its on the street. Its difficult to do it right.” “Come on, let me try.”“Id like to, Ben. But Aunt Polly wont even let my brother Sid do it.”“Ill be careful. Ill give you my apple.”_27_ While

45、 Ben was working in the sun, Tom sat under a tree eating the apple and thinking how to catch more boys. And there were lots of them. Boys came to make fun, but stayed to paint. By the time Ben was tired, Tom had exchanged the next turn with Billy Fisher for a good kite, and then Johnny Miller, and s

46、o on. _28_ He had learned that to make someone want something, you only have to make it difficult to get.根据短文内容,从方框中选出四个选项填入文中空缺处,使短文内容通顺完整。有一项剩余。A. All of the boys were glad to paint this fence because they could get Toms toys if they did.B. Tom gave Ben his brush with reluctance (勉强) on his face,

47、but with happiness in his heart.C. Suddenly he had an idea. He took his brush and started painting.D. By the time he had no more paint, he had had lots of toys and treasures, and the fence had had three coats of paint.E. Why not? Does a boy get a chance to paint a fence every day?【答案】25. C 26. E 27. B

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