药理学英文试题含复习资料.doc

1山东大学医学院（2005 —— 2006 学年第二学期）
2003 级 医学七年制 药理学期末考试试题（A 卷）
二、选择题：（ A 型每题 0.5 分，X 型每题 1分, 共 50 分）
Type A choice questions (only one answer is correct)
1. Which of the following is classified as belong to the G protein
coupling receptors?
A. GABAA receptor
B. badrenergic
receptor
C. insulin receptor
D. nicotinic II receptor
E. hydrocortisone receptor
2. Which of the following is unlikely to be associated with oral drug administration of an
entericcoated
dosage form?
A. irritation to the gastric mucosa with nausea and vomiting
B. destruction of the drug by gastric acid or digestive enzymes
C. unpleasant taste of the drug
D. formation of nonabsorbable drugfood
complexes
E. variability in absorption caused by fluctuations in gastric emptying time
3. Which of the following compounds will be absorbed to the least extent in the stomach?
A. ampicillin (pKa=2.5)
B. aspirin (pKa=3.0)
C. warfarin (pKa=5.0)
D. Phenobarbital (pKa=7.4)
E. propranolol (pKa=9.4)
4. Which of the following terms is most likely to be associated with “a rapid reduction in the
effect of a given dose of a drug after only one or two doses”?
A. supersensitivity
B. tachyphylaxis
C. tolerance
D hyposensitivity
E. anaphylaxis
5. A weak acidic drug with 4.4 of pKa, if the stomach juice pH is 1.4, plasma pH is 7.4, when
the distribution balance is reached, the drug concentration ratio between plasma and stomach
juice is
A. 100
B. 0.001
C. 1000
D. 10000
E. 0.01
6. In this graph，drugs A，B and C are analogs，then
A. A has a greater potency than B
B. A has a greater efficacy than C
C. B has less potency than C
D. A has a greater potency than C
E. B has a greater efficacy than C
7. Aspirin is a weak acid with 3.5 of pKa, what percentage of lipidsoluble
form will be in the
stomach juice with 2.5 of pH?
A. 0.99%
B. 9%
C. 9.09%
D. 90.9%
E. 99.9%
8. The contractile effect of various doses of norepinephrine (NE) (X) alone on vascular smooth
muscle is represented in the figure below. When combined with an antagonist (IC or INC), a
shift in the doseresponse
curve occurs. The curve labeled X+INC would mostly likely occur
when vascular smooth muscle is treated with NE in the presen
A. terazosin
B. phentolamine
C. labetalol
D. phenoxybenzamine
E. prazosin
B
A
C
效 应
Log 剂量
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9. The reversible cholinesterase inhibitor indicated in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is
A. tacrine
B. edrophonium
C. neostigmine
D. pyridostigmine
E. ambenonium
10. A predictably dangerous side effect of nadolol that constitutes a contraindication to its
clinical use in susceptible patients is the induction of
A. hypertension
B. cardiac arrhythmia
C. asthmatic attacks
D. respiratory depression
E. hypersensitivity
11. Epinephrine may be mixed with certain anesthetics, such as procaine, in order to
A. stimulate local wound repair
B. promote hemostasis
C. enhance their interaction with neural membranes and their ability to depress nerve
conduction
D. retard their systemic absorption
E. facilitate their distribution along nerves
12. A 58yearold
male with angina is treated with atenolol. Select the mechanism of action of
atenolol
A. aadrenergic
agonist
B. aadrenergic
antagonist
C. badrenergic
agonist
D. badrenergic
antagonist
E. mixed a and b antagonist
13. A male patient is brought to the emergency department following ingestion of an unknown
substance. He is found to have an elevated temperature, hot and flushed skin, dilated pupils,
and tachycardia. Of the following, which would most likely cause these findings?
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A. propranolol
B. tolazoline
C. prazosin
D. donepezil
E. atropine
14. A 65yearold
male has a blood pressure of 170/105mmHg. Which of the following would
be effective in lowering this patient’s blood pressure?
A. terbutaline
B. dobutamine
C. pancuronium
D. prazosin
E. scopolamine
15. Which of the following can be used in shock for increasing cardiac output and renal blood
flow?
A. norepinephrine
B. epinephrine
C. dopamine
D. phenylephrine
E. methoxamine
16. All of the following statements are related with succinylcholine EXCEPT
A. have muscle fasciculation before muscle relaxation
B. have no ganglionic blocking actions at therapeutic dose
C. can be antagonized by neostigmine
D. elevate blood potassium concentration
E. assistant agents of anesthetics
17. The agent which is effective for prostatic hyperplasia but has no effect on blood pressure is
A. terazosin
B. tamsulosin
C. phenoxybenzamine
D. regitine
E. prazosin
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Diazepam induce the drug metabolizing enzymes.
B. All benzodiazepines show antiepileptic actions.
C. All benzodiazepines have sedative effects.
D. Benzodiazepines readily produce general anesthesia.
E. Benzodiazepines directly open chloride channels.
19. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Chlorpromazine is indicated in treating the nausea of levodopa treatment.
B. Vitamin B6 increases the effectiveness of levodopa.
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C. Administration of dopamine is an effective treatment of Parkinson’s disease.
D. Levodopainduced
nausea is reduced by carbidopa.
E. Nonspecific MAOinhibitors
are a useful adjunct to levodopa therapy.
20. Which of the following is common to the tricyclic antidepressants and MAO inhibitors?
A. They can produce sedation.
B. They produce physical dependence.
C. They show strong interaction with certain foods.
D. They can produce postural hypotension.
E. They decrease availability of epinephrine in the synaptic cleft
21. The antipsychotic drugs:
A. are equally effective against the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
B. can cause blurred vision, urinary retention and other signs of muscarinic blockade
C. bind selectively to D2dopaminergic
receptors.
D. have antiparkinsonism effects similar to levodopa.
E. have a rapid onset of antipsychotic action.
22. All of the following are observed in patients taking neuroleptic agents EXCEPT:
A. sexual dysfunction.
B. bronchial asthma
C. altered endocrine function.
D. constipation.
E. orthostatic hypotension
23. Which of the following statements about morphine is INCORRECT?
A. It is used therapeutically to relieve pain caused by severe head injury.
B Its withdrawal symptoms can be relieved by methadone.
C. It causes constipation.
D. It is most effective by parenteral administration.
E. It rapidly enters many body tissues, including the fetus of a pregnant woman.
24. Which of the following statements concerning phenytoin is INCORRECT?
A. causes less sedation than phenobarbital.
B. causes gingival hyperplasia.
C. may cause megaloblastic anemia
D. is excreted unchanged in the urine.
E. The plasma halflife
increases as the dose is increased.
25. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in the patients with epilepsy?
A. Phenobarbital
B. imipramine
C. digoxin
D. chlorpromazine
E. aspirin
26. The agent which is effective for various epilepsy is
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A. diazepam
B. sodium phenytoin
C. sodium valproate
D. Phenobarbital
E. ethosuximide
27. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance EXCEPT:
A. chronic administration of diuretics
B. hydralazine
C. ACE inhibitors
D. βR
blockers
E. calcium channel blockers
28. Which of the following hypertensive patients is most suitble for primary therapy with
hydrochlorothiazide?
A. patients with gout
B. patients with hyperlipidemia

C. young hypertensive patients with rapid resting heart rate
D. patients with impaired renal function
E. elderly patients
29. Regarding antihypertensive drugs, which of the following statements is WRONG？
A. Hydrochlorothiazide can increase activity of rennin
B. Propranolol can decrease secretion of rennin
C. Sodium nitroprusside lowers BP rapidly by releasing NO.
D. Clonidine stimulates α2receptor
and imidazoline receptor
E. Diuretics decreased BP mainly by increasing water and sodium excretion from the
kidneys.
30. Which of the following drugs occurs orthostatic hypotension most frequently in first use:
A. clonidine
B. nifedipine
C. propranolol
D. enalapril
E. prazosin
31. The reason that digoxin can reduce the ventricular rate of atrial fibrillation patient is:
A. decreasing automaticity of ventricles
B. decreasing automaticity of atria
C. reducing the conduction of AV
node
D. improving cardiac ischemia
E. shortening the effective refractory period of atria
32. All of the following measures can be used in the treatment of digoxininduced
arrhythmia
EXCEPT
A. stopping digoxin administration
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B. diuretic agents such as furosemide are used to promote the excretion of digoxin
C. phenytoin administration
D. atropine administration
E. lidocaine administration
33. Which of the following effects of digoxin can NOT be seen in failure heart?
A. slowing sinus rhythm
B. increasing the oxygen consumption of myocardia
C. increasing the cardiac output

D. increasing the cardiac contractility
E. shortening atrial ERP
34. A 70 year old
female is treated with sublingual nitroglycerin for her occasional bouts of
angina. Which of the following is involved in the action of nitroglycerin?
A. αadrenergic
activity
B. phosphodiesterase activity
C. phosphorylation of light chains of myosin
D. norepinephrine release
E. cGMP increased
35. The therapeutic effect of β adrenergic
receptor blockers such as propranolol in angina
pectoris is believed to be primarily the result of
A. reduced production of catecholamines
B. dilation of the coronary vasculature
C. decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen
D. increased peripheral resistance
E. increased sensitivity to catecholamines
36. A 69yearold
male with angina develops severe constipation following treatment with
A. nitroglycerin
B. gemfibrozil(吉非贝齐)
C. propranolol
D. captopril
E. verapamil
37. Which of the following drugs has relatively few electrophysiologic effects on normal
myocardial tissue but suppresses the arrhythmogenic tendencies of ischemic myocardial
tissue?
A. Verapamil
B. Lidocaine
C. Quinidine
D. Propranolol
E. Procainamide
38. The firstline
drug for treating acute attack of reentrant supraventricular tachycardia is
A. adenosine
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B. lidocaine
C. quinidine
D. digoxin
E. procainamide
39. Which of the following drugs is NOT suitable to treat the patient with angina pectoris
accompanied with asthma?
A. nifedipine
B. isosorbide dinitrate
C. nitroglycerin
D. verapamil
E. propranolol
40. Which of the following drugs decreases de novo cholesterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the
enzyme HMG CoA reductase?
A. nicotinic acid
B. gemfibrozil
C. lovastatin
D. cholestyramine(考来烯胺)
E. probucol
41.Which of the following drugs can be used for Diabetics（typeⅡ）with renal insufficiency
A. gliclazide
B. tolbutamide
C. glibornuride
D. gliquidone
E. glipizide
42. The contraindication of Glucocorticoids is
A. septicemia
B. iritis
C. dermatomyositis
D. epidemic parotitis(流行性腮腺炎)
E. peptic ulcer
43. Antiasthmatic that could inhibit leukotrienes release and increase cerebral blood flow is
A. zileuton
B. pemirolast
C. ibudilast
D. zafirlukast
E. montelukast
44. Which of the following statements about acetazolamide is WRONG？
A. diuretic action
B. depresss the intracranial pressure
C. acidify blood
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D. alkalized urine
E. hyperkalemia
45. Which of the following drugs could promote macrophage production and enhance the
nonspecific immunologic function
A. erythropoietin
B. thrombopoietin
C. MCSF
D. MultiCSF
E. GCSF
46. Which of the following can be used for megaloblastic anemia
A. folic acid
B. folic acid +VitB12
C. folic acid +VitB6
D. folic acid +VitB12 +VitB6
E. folic acid +VitB12+VitB6+VitC
47. All of the following are true about hydrochlorothiazide EXCEPT
A. It can be used to treat hypercalcinuria
B. It can lead to hypoglycemia
C. It can increase the secretion of K + then cause hypokalemia
D. It can decrease blood pressure mildly
E. It can decrease the urinary output of diabetes insipidus patients
48. Which of the statements about thiourea is WRONG?
A. They inhibit synthesis of thyroxine
B. They have immunosuppressive effect
C. Propylthiouracil stimulates T4 transform to T3
D. They can cause thyroid enlargement when long term used
E. They can excrete from milk and pass through placenta barrier
49. The antibiotics which are potent against the pseudomonas aeruginosa are
A. carbenicillin, polymyxin, gentamycin and tobramycine
B. kanamycin, tobramycine, polymyxin and erythromycin
C. amikacin, gentamycin, polymyxin and oxacillin
D. amikacin, gentamycin, chloramphenicol and spectinomycin
E. carbenicillin, ampicillin, Cephalexin and polymyxin
50. Which of the following compatibility administration is correct?
A. streptomycin + gentamicin
B. penicillin + gentamicin
C. streptomycin + furosemide
D. penicillin + tetracycline
E. penicillin + chloramphenicol
51．Clavulanic acid can inhibit which one of the following enzymes?
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A．Dihydrofolate synthetase
B．peptidoglycan synthetase
C．βlactamase
D．DNA polymerase
E．dihydrofolate reductase
52．The agent which can relieve AIDS and AIDS correlating syndrome is
A. idoxuridine
B. zidovudine
C. acyclovir
D. ribavirin
E. adenine arabinoside
53．Which of the following imidazoles have NO effect on fungus ?
A. metronidazole
B. miconazole
C. clotrimazole
D. fluconazol
E. ketoconazole
54．Herxheimer reaction is caused by penicillin when it is used to treat：
A．lobar pneumonia
B．tetanus
C．viridans endocarditis
D．bacterial meningitis
E．leptospirosis
55. Of the following, which is the best agent to use in pregnant patient with urinary tract
infection (UTI ) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?
A. tetracycline
B. levofloxacin
C. gentamycin
D. erythromycin
E. SMZTMP
56. The t1/2 of which of the following tetracyclines remains unchanged when the drug is
administered to an anuric patient
A. methacycline
B. oxytetracycline
C. doxycycline
D. tetracycline
E. none of the above
57. A 45yearold
female being treated for a chronic UTI develops acute alcohol intolerance.
Which of the following agents could have caused this intolerance?
A. cefoperazone
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B. amoxicillin
C. SMZ
D. norfloxacin
E. tetracycline
58. A patient with a pneumonia has a sputum culture that is positive for a staphylococcal
strain that is blactamase positive.
Which is the best choice of penicillin therapy in this
patient?
A. ampicillin
B. oxacillin
C. penicillin V
D. penicillin G
E. carbenicillin
59. A 75 year old
woman is hospitalized for pneumonia and treated with an intravenous
antibiotic. On day three, she develops severe diarrhea. Stool is positive for Clostridium
difficile toxin. What is the best treatment?
A. clindamycin
B. cefaclor
C. metronidazole
D. erythromycin
E. doxycycline
60. The mechanism of action of chloramphenicol as an antibiotic is that it
A.