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某公司理财课后题答案(英文版).docx

1、Chapter 2: Accounting Statements and Cash Flow 2.10 Assets Current assets Cash $ 4,000 Accounts receivable 8,000 Total current assets $ 12,000 Fixed assets Machinery $ 34,000 Patents 82,000 Total fixed assets $116,000 Total assets $128,000 Liabilities and eq

2、uity Current liabilities Accounts payable $ 6,000 Taxes payable 2,000 Total current liabilities $ 8,000 Long-term liabilities Bonds payable $7,000 Stockholders equity Common stock ($100 par) $ 88,000 Capital surplus 19,000 Retained earnings 6,000 Total stoc

3、kholders equity $113,000 Total liabilities and equity $128,000 2.11 One year ago Today Long-term debt $50,000,000 $50,000,000 Preferred stock 30,000,000 30,000,000 Common stock 100,000,000 110,000,000 Retained earnings 20,000,000 22,000,000 Total $200,000,000 $212,000,

4、000 2.12 Total Cash Flow of the Stancil Company Cash flows from the firm Capital spending $(1,000) Additions to working capital (4,000) Total $(5,000) Cash flows to investors of the firm Short-term debt $(6,000) Long-term debt (20,000) Equity (Dividend - Financing) 21,000

5、Total $(5,000) [Note: This table isn’t the Statement of Cash Flows, which is only covered in Appendix 2B, since the latter has the change in cash (on the balance sheet) as a final entry.] 2.13 a. The changes in net working capital can be computed from: Sources of net working capital Net in

6、come $100 Depreciation 50 Increases in long-term debt 75 Total sources $225 Uses of net working capital Dividends $50 Increases in fixed assets* 150 Total uses $200 Additions to net working capital $25 *Includes $50 of depreciation. b. Cash flow from the firm Operatin

7、g cash flow $150 Capital spending (150) Additions to net working capital (25) Total $(25) Cash flow to the investors Debt $(75) Equity 50 Total $(25) Chapter 3: Financial Markets and Net Present Value: First Principles of Finance (Advanced) 3.14 $120,000 - ($150,000

8、 $100,000) (1.1) = $65,000 3.15 $40,000 + ($50,000 - $20,000) (1.12) = $73,600 3.16 a. ($7 million + $3 million) (1.10) = $11.0 million b. i. They could spend $10 million by borrowing $5 million today. ii. They will have to spend $5.5 million [= $11 million - ($5 million x 1.1)]

9、at t=1. Chapter 4: Net Present Value 4.12 a. $1,000 ´ 1.0510 = $1,628.89 b. $1,000 ´ 1.0710 = $1,967.15 c. $1,000 ´ 1.0520 = $2,653.30 d. Interest compounds on the interest already earned. Therefore, the interest earned in part c, $1,653.30, is more than double the amount earned

10、 in part a, $628.89. 4.13 Since this bond has no interim coupon payments, its present value is simply the present value of the $1,000 that will be received in 25 years. Note: As will be discussed in the next chapter, the present value of the payments associated with a bond is the price of that bon

11、d. PV = $1,000 /1.125 = $92.30 4.14 PV = $1,500,000 / 1.0827 = $187,780.23 4.15 a. At a discount rate of zero, the future value and present value are always the same. Remember, FV = PV (1 + r) t. If r = 0, then the formula reduces to FV = PV. Therefore, the values of the options are

12、10,000 and $20,000, respectively. You should choose the second option. b. Option one: $10,000 / 1.1 = $9,090.91 Option two: $20,000 / 1.15 = $12,418.43 Choose the second option. c. Option one: $10,000 / 1.2 = $8,333.33 Option two: $20,000 / 1.25 = $8,037.55 Choose the first

13、option. d. You are indifferent at the rate that equates the PVs of the two alternatives. You know that rate must fall between 10% and 20% because the option you would choose differs at these rates. Let r be the discount rate that makes you indifferent between the options. $10,000 / (1 + r) =

14、20,000 / (1 + r)5 (1 + r)4 = $20,000 / $10,000 = 2 1 + r = 1.18921 r = 0.18921 = 18.921% 4.16 The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the first year will earn interest for six years. The $1,000 that you place in the account at the end of the second year will earn interes

15、t for five years, etc. Thus, the account will have a balance of $1,000 (1.12)6 + $1,000 (1.12)5 + $1,000 (1.12)4 + $1,000 (1.12)3 = $6,714.61 4.17 PV = $5,000,000 / 1.1210 = $1,609,866.18 4.18 a. $1.000 (1.08)3 = $1,259.71 b. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 2)]2 ´ 3 = $1,000 (1.04)6 = $1,265.32

16、c. $1,000 [1 + (0.08 / 12)]12 ´ 3 = $1,000 (1.00667)36 = $1,270.24 d. $1,000 e0.08 ´ 3 = $1,271.25 e. The future value increases because of the compounding. The account is earning interest on interest. Essentially, the interest is added to the account balance at the end of every compounding

17、 period. During the next period, the account earns interest on the new balance. When the compounding period shortens, the balance that earns interest is rising faster. 4.19 The price of the consol bond is the present value of the coupon payments. Apply the perpetuity formula to find the presen

18、t value. PV = $120 / 0.15 = $800 4.20 a. $1,000 / 0.1 = $10,000 b. $500 / 0.1 = $5,000 is the value one year from now of the perpetual stream. Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $5,000 / 1.1 = $4,545.45. c. $2,420 / 0.1 = $24,200 is the value two years from now of the perpetual stream.

19、Thus, the value of the perpetuity is $24,200 / 1.12 = $20,000. 4.21 Apply the NPV technique. Since the inflows are an annuity you can use the present value of an annuity factor. NPV = -$6,200 + $1,200 = -$6,200 + $1,200 (5.3349) = $201.88 Yes, you should buy the asset. 4.22 Use

20、an annuity factor to compute the value two years from today of the twenty payments. Remember, the annuity formula gives you the value of the stream one year before the first payment. Hence, the annuity factor will give you the value at the end of year two of the stream of payments. Value at the

21、 end of year two = $2,000 = $2,000 (9.8181) = $19,636.20 The present value is simply that amount discounted back two years. PV = $19,636.20 / 1.082 = $16,834.88 4.23 The easiest way to do this problem is to use the annuity factor. The annuity factor must be equal to $12,800 / $2,00

22、0 = 6.4; remember PV =C ATr. The annuity factors are in the appendix to the text. To use the factor table to solve this problem, scan across the row labeled 10 years until you find 6.4. It is close to the factor for 9%, 6.4177. Thus, the rate you will receive on this note is slightly more than 9

23、 You can find a more precise answer by interpolating between nine and ten percent. [ 10% ù [6.1446 ù a é r ú b c é6.4 ï d ë 9%û ë6.4177 û By interpolating, you are presuming that the ratio of a to b is equal to the ratio of c to d.

24、 (9 - r ) / (9 - 10) = (6.4177 - 6.4 ) / (6.4177 - 6.1446) r = 9.0648% The exact value could be obtained by solving the annuity formula for the interest rate. Sophisticated calculators can compute the rate directly as 9.0626%. [Note: A standard financial calculator’s TVM keys can solve

25、 for this rate. With annuity flows, the IRR key on “advanced” financial calculators is unnecessary.] 4.24 a. The annuity amount can be computed by first calculating the PV of the $25,000 which you need in five years. That amount is $17,824.65 [= $25,000 / 1.075]. Next compute the annuity whic

26、h has the same present value. $17,824.65 = C $17,824.65 = C (4.1002) C = $4,347.26 Thus, putting $4,347.26 into the 7% account each year will provide $25,000 five years from today. b. The lump sum payment must be the present value of the $25,000, i.e., $25,000 / 1.075

27、 $17,824.65 The formula for future value of any annuity can be used to solve the problem (see footnote 11 of the text). 4.25 Option one: This cash flow is an annuity due. To value it, you must use the after-tax amounts. The after-tax payment is $160,000 (1 - 0.28) = $115,200. Value a

28、ll except the first payment using the standard annuity formula, then add back the first payment of $115,200 to obtain the value of this option. Value = $115,200 + $115,200 = $115,200 + $115,200 (9.4269) = $1,201,178.88 Option two: This option is valued similarly. You are able to

29、 have $446,000 now; this is already on an after-tax basis. You will receive an annuity of $101,055 for each of the next thirty years. Those payments are taxable when you receive them, so your after-tax payment is $72,759.60 [= $101,055 (1 - 0.28)]. Value = $446,000 + $72,759.60 = $446,0

30、00 + $72,759.60 (9.4269) = $1,131,897.47 Since option one has a higher PV, you should choose it. 4.26 Let r be the rate of interest you must earn. $10,000(1 + r)12 = $80,000 (1 + r)12 = 8 r = 0.18921 = 18.921% 4.27 First compute the present value of all the payments you must

31、make for your children’s education. The value as of one year before matriculation of one child’s education is $21,000 = $21,000 (2.8550) = $59,955. This is the value of the elder child’s education fourteen years from now. It is the value of the younger child’s education sixteen years from t

32、oday. The present value of these is PV = $59,955 / 1.1514 + $59,955 / 1.1516 = $14,880.44 You want to make fifteen equal payments into an account that yields 15% so that the present value of the equal payments is $14,880.44. Payment = $14,880.44 / = $14,880.44 / 5.8474 =

33、 $2,544.80 4.28 This problem applies the growing annuity formula. The first payment is $50,000(1.04)2(0.02) = $1,081.60. PV = $1,081.60 [1 / (0.08 - 0.04) - {1 / (0.08 - 0.04)}{1.04 / 1.08}40] = $21,064.28 This is the present value of the payments, so the value forty years

34、from today is $21,064.28 (1.0840) = $457,611.46 4.29 Use the discount factors to discount the individual cash flows. Then compute the NPV of the project. Notice that the four $1,000 cash flows form an annuity. You can still use the factor tables to compute their PV. Essentially, they for

35、m cash flows that are a six year annuity less a two year annuity. Thus, the appropriate annuity factor to use with them is 2.6198 (= 4.3553 - 1.7355). Year Cash Flow Factor PV 1 $700 0.9091 $636.37 2 900 0.8264 743.76 3 1,000 ù 4 1,000 ú 2.6198 2,61

36、9.80 5 1,000 ú 6 1,000 û 7 1,250 0.5132 641.50 8 1,375 0.4665 641.44 Total $5,282.87 NPV = -$5,000 + $5,282.87 = $282.87 Purchase the machine. Chapter 5: How to Value Bonds and Stocks 5.9 The amount of the semi-annual interest payment is $40 (=$1,0

37、00 ´ 0.08 / 2). There are a total of 40 periods; i.e., two half years in each of the twenty years in the term to maturity. The annuity factor tables can be used to price these bonds. The appropriate discount rate to use is the semi-annual rate. That rate is simply the annual rate divided by t

38、wo. Thus, for part b the rate to be used is 5% and for part c is it 3%. PV=C+F/(1+r)40 a. $40 (19.7928) + $1,000 / 1.0440 = $1,000 Notice that whenever the coupon rate and the market rate are the same, the bond is priced at par. b. $40 (17.1591) + $1,000 / 1.0540 = $828.41 Notice

39、 that whenever the coupon rate is below the market rate, the bond is priced below par. c. $40 (23.1148) + $1,000 / 1.0340 = $1,231.15 Notice that whenever the coupon rate is above the market rate, the bond is priced above par. 5.10 a. The semi-annual interest rate is $60 / $1,000 = 0.06.

40、 Thus, the effective annual rate is 1.062 - 1 = 0.1236 = 12.36%. b. Price = $30 + $1,000 / 1.0612 = $748.48 c. Price = $30 + $1,000 / 1.0412 = $906.15 Note: In parts b and c we are implicitly assuming that the yield curve is flat. That is, the yield in year 5 a

41、pplies for year 6 as well. 5.11 Price = $2 (0.72) / 1.15 + $4 (0.72) / 1.152 + $50 / 1.153 = $36.31 The number of shares you own = $100,000 / $36.31 = 2,754 shares 5.12 Price = $1.15 (1.18) / 1.12 + $1.15 (1.182) / 1.122 + $1.152 (1.182) / 1.123 + {$1.152 (1.182) (1.06) / (0.12

42、 0.06)} / 1.123 = $26.95 5.13 [Insert before last sentence of question: Assume that dividends are a fixed proportion of earnings.] Dividend one year from now = $5 (1 - 0.10) = $4.50 Price = $5 + $4.50 / {0.14 - (-0.10)} = $23.75 Since the current $5 dividend has not yet

43、 been paid, it is still included in the stock price. Chapter 6: Some Alternative Investment Rules 6.10 a. Payback period of Project A = 1 + ($7,500 - $4,000) / $3,500 = 2 years Payback period of Project B = 2 + ($5,000 - $2,500 -$1,200) / $3,000 = 2.43 years Project A should be chosen. b.

44、NPVA = -$7,500 + $4,000 / 1.15 + $3,500 / 1.152 + $1,500 / 1.153 = -$388.96 NPVB = -$5,000 + $2,500 / 1.15 + $1,200 / 1.152 + $3,000 / 1.153 = $53.83 Project B should be chosen. 6.11 a. Average Investment: ($16,000 + $12,000 + $8,000 + $4,000 + 0) / 5 = $8,000 Average accounting retur

45、n: $4,500 / $8,000 = 0.5625 = 56.25% b. 1. AAR does not consider the timing of the cash flows, hence it does not consider the time value of money. 2. AAR uses an arbitrary firm standard as the decision rule. 3. AAR uses accounting data rather than net cash flows. 6.12 a Average Inve

46、stment = (8000 + 4000 + 1500 + 0)/4 = 3375.00 Average Net Income = 2000(1-0.75) = 1500 => AAR = 1500/3375=44.44% 6.13 a. Solve x by trial and error: -$8,000 + $4,000 / (1 + x) + $3000 / (1 + x)2 + $2,000 / (1 + x)3 = 0 x = 6.93% b. No, since the IRR (6.93%) is less than the discou

47、nt rate of 8%. Alternatively, the NPV @ a discount rate of 0.08 = -$136.62. 6.14 a. Solve r in the equation: $5,000 - $2,500 / (1 + r) - $2,000 / (1 + r)2 - $1,000 / (1 + r)3 - $1,000 / (1 + r)4 = 0 By trial and error, IRR = r = 13.99% b. Since this problem is the case of fina

48、ncing, accept the project if the IRR is less than the required rate of return. IRR = 13.99% > 10% Reject the offer. c. IRR = 13.99% < 20% Accept the offer. d. When r = 10%: NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.1 - $2,000 / 1.12 - $1,000 / 1.13 - $1,000 / 1.14 = -$359.95 When r = 20%:

49、 NPV = $5,000 - $2,500 / 1.2 - $2,000 / 1.22 - $1,000 / 1.23 - $1,000 / 1.24 = $466.82 Yes, they are consistent with the choices of the IRR rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once. 6.15 PI = $40,000 / $160,000 = 1.04 Since the PI exceeds one accept the project. Chapter

50、 7: Net Present Value and Capital Budgeting 7.9 Since there is uncertainty surrounding the bonus payments, which McRae might receive, you must use the expected value of McRae’s bonuses in the computation of the PV of his contract. McRae’s salary plus the expected value of his bonuses in years on

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