2018七上英语南沙区期末考(带答案).doc

南沙区2017学年第一学期学生学业水平测试
七年级英语
本试卷共四大题,全卷共9页,满分100分;考试时间90分钟
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必在答题卷上用黑色钢笔或签字笔填写自己的学校、班级、姓名
同时填写考生号、座位号,再用2B铅笔把对应这两个号码的标号涂黑。
2..选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卷上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改
动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答,答案必须写在答题卷各题目指定区
域的相应位置上:如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案,改动的答案也不能
超出指定的区域;不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卷的整洁,考试结束,将答题卷交回。

一、单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
1. ______club do you want to join, Andrew?
A. How B. What C. When D. Who
2. I’d like to go to the Great Wall, but my friend ______ to visit the Summer Palace.
A. want B. to want C. wanting D. wants
3. Tom is _____ free on Saturday, so he can play basketball with us every weekend.
A. never B. sometimes C. always D. seldom
4. --What can I do for you?
-- I would like three ______ ice cream, please.
A. boxes of B. box of C. boxes D. box
5. It is important ______ before you act, don’t be in a hurry.
A think B. to think C. thinking D. think
6. The spaceship will be as ______ as a city in the future, and each ship will carry over 1,000, 000 people.
A. big B. bigger C. biggest D. the biggest
7. --My younger brother broke my new Iphone yesterday.
-- _________.
A. don't be silly B. It doesn't matter
C. I’m sorry to hear that D. I’d love to
8. I’m going to give you a big dinner if you me buy these things online now.
A helps B. help C. will help D. helping
9. One summer afternoon, Maisy started to go camping in the countryside. All her friends ______ with her.
A. went B. go C. goes D. will go
10. --Would you like a winter holiday on Hainan Island?
--Wow, a winter holiday in Hainan! I can’t wait! I ______ my swimsuit right
A. am packing B. packed C. pack D. am going to pack
二、语法选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,从11~20各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Canton Tower is the highest building in China. 11 you stand on top of the tower, you can get a bird’s-eye view of the Pearl River. At weekends, people in Guangzhou often visit the tower with 12 families. Visitors are 13 in taking photos of the city at the tower.
In 2005, workers 14 to build this tower. In 2010, the colourful lights of the tower lighted up the sky for the first time. People spent over four years 15 it.
Canton Tower is in the center of our city. It is 16 to get there by bus or by underground. We can also find 17 useful information of the tower on the Internet. For example, there 18 a 4D-cinema in it. The tower is open 19 9a.m. to 11p.m.
For people in Guangzhou, Canton Tower is 20 work of art and a new symbol of our city.
11. A. If B. So C. Or D. But
12. A. they B. them C. their D. theirs
13. A. interesting B. interested C. interest D. interests
14. A. started B. start C. starts D. starting
15. A. build B. builds C. built D. building
16. A. easy B. easily C. easiest D. more easily
17. A. a few B. some C. many D. any
18. A. has B. have C. is D. are
19. A. from B. on C. in D. about
20. A. / B. an C. the D. a

三、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从21~30各题所给的A、B、C和D项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was Thanksgiving Day. Miss Green asked her students to do special 21 as homework. “Please draw a picture to show your 22 .” said Miss Green.
Then everyone began to draw pictures. Most of the class drew a turkey or other traditional things, but Douglas, a shy boy, drew a 23 thing. He only drew one hand. Miss Green was very 24 .
“Whose hand is it?” Miss Green asked Douglas. His classmates were also surprised. One child said, “It must be a farmer’s hand, because farmers 25 turkeys.” Others guessed it was his father's hand because Douglas’s family was very 26 and his father had to work day and night for money.
“It’s __27__ hand.” answered Douglas.
“Mine? Why do you draw my hand?” said Miss Green.
“You often 28 my hand to play outside. And you teach me how to hold my pencil. Your hands are very 29 to me.”
Miss Green’s eyes became 30 . Oh, the boy was showing his thanks to her.
21. A. questions B. gifts C. work D. toys
22. A. thanks B. wishes C. asks D. shouts
23. A. lovely B. difficult C. beautiful D. different
24. A. excited B. unhappy C. sick D. surprised
25. A. eat B. difficult C. keep D. kill
26. A. poor B. happy C. rich D. clean
27. A. her B. your C. my D. our
28. A. draw B. give C. take D. reach
29. A. kind B. warm C. cute D. strange
30. A. wet B. weak C. wide D. pretty

四、阅读(共两节；满分35分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项黑.
A
People in China like animals and usually keep some of them as their pets. These pets can bring people a lot of fun. People in UK are pet lovers, too.
Lots of families in the UK have one or two pets. Dogs are their favorite pets. Cats are the second And birds are the third. But some families don’t like to keep dogs, cats or birds. They keep other special animals as pets in their homes, like tigers, elephants and snakes.
English people always look after their pets very well. They usually give them lovely names let them wear beautiful clothes and feed them with delicious food. They usually buy the food it some pet shops. Sometimes the food is really expensive. Many pets even have their own houses beds, meals and bowls. When they talk about their pets, they usually say “he” or “my son”, “she” or “my daughter”. They never say “it”.
31. How many kinds of animals does the passage talk about?
A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six
32. What do English people usually do for their pets?
a. Give them lovely names
b. Buy cars for them
c. Feed them with delicious food
d. Let them wear beautiful clothe
A. abc B. abd C. acd D. bed
33. “Look at my dog! ______ is a nice boy, right?” said an English pet lover
A. He B. She C. It D. Dog
34. Which of the following is TRUE about English people?
A. All of them like dogs or cats as pets.
B. They don’t like keeping snakes as pets.
C. They feed their pets with delicious and cheap food.
D. They are friendly to pets and help them a lot.
35. Which is the best title for the passage?
A. How to keep pets B. Keeping pets in the UK
C Keeping pets in China D. people’s favorite pets
B
You may know a lot about smart phones. But what about smart cities?
Imagine living your life like this: When you wake up in the morning, you say “Open the window” to the computer and it opens the window. The sunshine is shining and the birds are singing. Then you finish breakfast and sit in front of your desk and begin to have classes through the Internet. With the help of building a smart city, this may become true one day.
A smart city uses digital technologies(数字科技) such as the Internet to improve city planning, save resources(资源) and make our lives easier. For example, people live in smart cities, where there is Internet almost everywhere. They can do many things at home, such as booking train tickets, paying water bills and shopping online. What a convenient life it is!
Now China is making some cities smarter. For example, Guiyang is going to build free Wi-Fi in the whole city. Tianjin plans to start a smart city program to solve traffic problems. Guangzhou is creating a smart city, so everyone in the city should play a role in creating a smart city.
36. Which city is planning to start a smart city program to solve traffic problems?
A Guiyang B. Tianjin C. Guangzhou D. Beijing
37. According to the passage, we can do the following things with Internet at home EXCEPT________.
A. booking train tickets B. having classes
C. paying water bills D. having breakfast
38. The underlined word “convenient” in the passage means “_______”.
A. difficult B. easy C. lazy D. busy
39. What will the life be like in the future?
A. People in Guiyang can pay money for wi-fi in the whole city
B. A smart city with digital technologies will use more resources
C. People can open the windows through the computer.
D. Computers can make the sun shine and birds sing.
40. The passage mainly tells us _______.
A. the smart cities B. the future life
C. digital technologies D. the smart phones
C

41. How long will the English Festival last for?
A. eight days B. one month C. two months D. three months
42. Who is organizing the English Festival?
A. English teachers B. Speech Club
C. Students’ Union D. Happy English Club
43. Jenny is in Class 7 Grade 8, she can take part in
A. Garden Party and Cos Play
B. Little Singer Competition and Cos Play
C. little Singer Competition and Garden Party
D. Speech Contest and Little Singer Competition
44. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. You should practice English with your friends during the English festival.
B. The English Festival activities are only for students.
C. You can enjoy English songs at school every day during the English festival.
D. If you want to take part in the activities, you can call 84980123.
45. What’s the passage?
A. A poster B. A letter C. A diary D. A newspaper
第二节 阅读填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
阅读短文及文后选项,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Katy Perry was born in a poor family in America. 46.__________ She has a sister and a brother. When she was very young, she liked to listen to music very much. Especially gospel music(福音音乐). 47.__________
She nearly releases new works every year. In 2001, Perry released her first studio album Katy Hudson under her birth name. 48.__________ But she didn't give up and went on to write songs by herself. 49.__________ And she became known by a large number of people. In 2010, she released the album Teenage Dream.
50.__________ She really shows she is not only a beautiful woman, but also a successful singer.
A. It was not so successful.
B. Now she is very popular with young people in the world.
C. She is the second child in her family.
D. So she often sang in the church(教堂).
E. In 2006, she released Goodbye for now.

五、写作(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 单词拼写(共6小题;每题1分,满分6分)
根据下列句子及所给单词的首字母写出所缺单词。在填写答卷时,要求写出完整单词(每空限填一词)
51. China is a large c__________ with 1.3 billion people.
52. You must be careful of the cars when you walk a__________ the street.
53. When they were walking to school, it began to rain . So they all got w__________.
54. My father gets up very early every morning and he is never late for work.
55.The film was so b__________ that I fell asleep in the cinema.
56. You can borrow some books from the library and you must r__________ them on time.

第二节 完成句子(共7小题;每小题2分,满分14分)
根据所给的汉语内容,用英语完成下列句子。（每空限填一词）
57.有些青少年每天长时间玩电脑游戏,这对他们的学习是有害的。
Some teenagers play computer games for a long time every day, it __________ __________ __________ their studies.
58.南沙有很多风景名胜，例如天后宫，湿地公园，百万葵园等。
There are many __________ __________ __________ in Nansha, such as Tianhou Palace, Nansha Wetland, Sunflower Garden and so on.
59.上个星期天我和朋友去野餐了,我们玩得很开心。
Last Sunday I __________ __________ __________ __________with my friends and we all had a very good time.
60.当你在阅读中遇到一个新单词,你可以查字典。
When you meet a new word in your reading, you can __________ __________ __________ in the dictionary.
61.我认为你是一个友善的人,我想和你交朋友。
I think you are a kind person so I want to __________ __________ __________ you.
62.为了送妈妈一个特别的母亲节礼物昨晚我很认真地制作了一张贺卡。
Last night I made a card very carefully __________ __________ I can send my mother a special present on mother's Day.
63.如果明天天晴的话,我就走路上学。
__________ it __________ sunny tomorrow, I will go to school om

第三节 书面表达(共1题,满分15分)
为了丰富同学们的寒假生活,班上将组织一次为期四天的冬令营活动。假如你是班长，老师让你安排这次冬令营活动。请根据下面的提示,用英语介绍你自己的冬令营计划(可根据要点适当发挥)

参考词汇: lecture讲座; museum博物馆

We will have a winter camp from January 2I to January 24 in Guangzhou. Here is the plan for the four days.______________________________________________________________________________________________
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南沙区2017 学年第一学期期末七年级学业水平测试
参考答案及评分标准 英语
一、     语法选择 （每题1分，共15分）
1-5 BDCAB         6-10 ACBAD     11-15 ACBAD  16-20 ABCBD 
二、     完形填空（每题1.5分，共15分）
     21-25 CADDC  26-30 ABCBA
三、     阅读理解（35分）
（一） 阅读选择（每题2分，共30分）
      31-35 DCADB     36-40 BDBCA      41-45 CDCBA
阅读填空46-50 CDAEB （每题1分，共5分）
四、     写作
（一）单词拼写（每题1分）
【形式错误扣0.5分，不写首字母不给分，只有词根正确，得0.5分】
51、country     52. across           53. wet        
54.never        55. boring              56. return
（二）完成句子（每题2分，共14分）
【1分的有错扣0.5，0.5分的有错则不给分】
57. is bad for  (1+0.5+0.5)   
58. places of interest (1+0.5+0.5)
59. went for a picnic  (0.5+0.5+0.5+0.5)
60. look it up (1+0.5+0.5)
61. make friends with  (0.5+1+0.5 )
62. so that  (1+1)
63. If is on foot  (0.5+0.5+0.5+0.5)
（三）书面表达：
写作评分标准及评分细则说明：
原则： 采用整体评分法与要素评分法相结合。
评分时从提示内容、语言准确性和流畅性三个方面确定考生答案所属档次。
1．内容上（6分）： 保证所谈的内容覆盖了表格中的内容，并按要求自主拓展。三个点，每个点1.5分，拓展部分1.5分（1.5+1.5+1.5+1.5）
2．准确性（6分）：从词汇丰富、得体性，以及语法、句型正确性等方面整体考虑、综合扣分；时态：一般将来时态
3．流畅性（3分）：从句子是否通顺、上下文意思是否连贯、表达是否清楚、是否符合逻辑等方面整体考虑，综合扣分，文章是否有亮点（好词好句，好的开头结尾等）。

 参考范文：
A plan for Winter Camp
We will have a winter camp from January 21 to January 24 in Tianhe District. Here is the plan for the four days.
On the first day, we will go to climb the Baiyun Mountain in the morning. In the afternoon, we will go to visit the Space Museum. It will be wonderful for us to learn something about the space. Next day we will go shopping and take some delicious food in Guangzhou, such as dim sum, dumplings and so on.
On the third day we will visit Guangzhou Middle School, and then we will listen to a lecture about protecting the Earth. On the last day，we are going to travel around Guangzhou city by bike in the daytime. Besides, we will have a Pearl River Cruise at night. We can enjoy the beautiful night of Guangzhou. I'm sure we will have a good time.

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